Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

ChatGPT Is Making Us Weird - Business Insider

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

They say that the Democrats media is able to gaslight their ignorant followers. How true is that, and is the fact that Democrats have echoed that Jan 6th was worse than 9/11 or Pearl Harbor proof of that, via gaslighting their ignorant followers?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What we learned from the 2025 Le Mans 24 Hours test day - The Race

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: